Dec 2022 BEVAE 181 Environmental Studies Solved Paper [IGNOU BCOMG]

Dec 2022 BEVAE 181 Environmental Studies Solved Paper [IGNOU BCOMG]

IGNOU BCOMG Solved Question Papers

Term-End Examination, Dec, 2022

Maximum Marks: 50

Time: 2 hours

In this post you will get Dec 2022 BEVAE 181 Environmental Studies Solved Paper. This is a Common paper for the Students of IGNOU BCOMG Pursuing Graduation. 

1. Who developed the concept of determinism?

(1) Friedrich Ratzel.

(2) Ellsworth Huntington.

(3) Charles Darwin.

(4) Alexander von Humboldt.

Ans: (1) Friedrich Ratzel.

2. Which of the following is not one of the seventeen Sustainable Development Goals?

(1) Climate Action.

(2) Quality Education.

(3) Gender Equity.

(4) Reducing Inequality.

Ans: (4) Reducing Inequality.

3. Which one of the following is a human modified environment?

(1) Artificial lake.

(2) Sanctuaries.

(3) Crop fields.

(4) Dams.

Ans: (4) Dams.

4. Which one of the following refers to a position in the food chain?

(1) Community level.

(2) Population level.

(3) Trophic level.

(4) Biotic community.

Ans: (3) Trophic level.

5. In the biosphere water component is known as:

(1) Ecosphere.

(2) Atmosphere.

(3) Lithosphere.

(4) Hydrosphere.

Ans: (4) Hydrosphere.

6. Sulphur cycle is an example of:

(1) gaseous cycle.

(2) sedimentary cycle.

(3) both gaseous and sedimentary cycle.

(4) None of the above.

Ans: (3) both gaseous and sedimentary cycle.

7. Secondary consumers are:

(1) plants.

(2) herbivores.

(3) carnivores.

(4) both herbivores and carnivores.

Ans: (3) carnivores.

8. In coniferous forest the soil is:

(1) acidic and mineral deficient.

(2) very rich in mineral nutrients.

(3) basic and mineral deficient.

(4) moderately basic and rich in mineral nutrients.

Ans: (1) acidic and mineral deficient.

9. Chameleons, agamid and geckos are found in:

(1) temperate rainforest.

(2) tropical seasonal forest.

(3) sub-tropical rainforest.

(4) tropical rainforest.

Ans: (4) tropical rainforest.

10. Which one of the following species excretes very concentrated urine and does not use water for temperature regulation and can live in the desert without drinking water?

(1) Camel.

(2) Nocturnal rodent.

(3) Ostrich.

(4) Rat-tailed bat.

Ans: (1) Camel.

IGNOU BCOMG Solved Question Papers - BEVAE 181 Environmental Studies

11. Unattached aquatic organism which lives at the air-water interface is known as:

(1) Periphyton.

(2) Plankton.

(3) Neuston.

(4) Nekton.

Ans: (3) Neuston.

12. What is the percentage of fresh water where global distribution of water resources is considered?

(1) Less than 3%.

(2) Less than 4%.

(3) Less than 5%.

(4) Less than 6%.

Ans: (1) Less than 3%.

13. Which one of the following is a non-renewable resource?

(1) Wildlife.

(2) Water.

(3) Mineral deposits.

(4) Forest.

Ans: (3) Mineral deposits.

14. The average salinity of sea water is:

(1) 3%.

(2) 3.5%.

(3) 4.5%.

(4) 5%.

Ans: (2) 3.5%.

15. Which of the following is not achieved by addition of manure?

(1) A more stable aggregate structure.

(2) Improved cohesiveness of soil.

(3) Increase in water retentive capacity.

(4) Decrease in soil salinity.

Ans: (4) Decrease in soil salinity.

16. Which one of the following is not a part of supporting ecological systems and processes function of forest?

(1) Checks the soil erosion.

(2) Improves the air quality.

(3) Reduces the intensity of cyclones and floods.

(4) Acts as a carbon sink.

Ans: (3) Reduces the intensity of cyclones and floods.

17. Which one of the following is a consequence of deforestation?

(1) Increase in soil erosion due to reduction in vegetation.

(2) Increase in the oxygen liberated by plants.

(3) Decrease in carbon dioxide level.

(4) Increase in availability of forest product.

Ans: (1) Increase in soil erosion due to reduction in vegetation.

18. Which one of the following is not a Non-Timber Forest Product (NTFP)?

(1) Medicinal herbs.

(2) Edible leaves and flowers.

(3) Firewood.

(4) Edible fruits.

Ans: (3) Firewood.

19. Which one of the following statements about the biodiversity in India is correct?

(1) The desert areas of Gujarat and Rajasthan have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare species.

(2) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.

(3) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.

(4) Conversion of biodiversity is just a fad push.

Ans: (3) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.

20. An ecosystem with higher diversity will be:

(1) more complex, stable and resistant.

(2) more fragile and sensitive.

(3) more simple and less stable.

(4) less productive.

Ans: (1) more complex, stable and resistant.

21. Which of the following animals are exclusively found in Brahmaputra Valley?

(1) Chinkara.

(2) Rhinoceros.

(3) Lion-tailed Macaque.

(4) Houbara Bustard.

Ans: (2) Rhinoceros.

22. Which of the following is not a biodiversity hotspot?

(1) The Western Ghats.

(2) The Himalayas.

(3) The Nicobar Group of Islands.

(4) Vindhyas and Satpura region of Madhya Pradesh.

Ans: (4) Vindhyas and Satpura region of Madhya Pradesh.

23. What percentage of energy needs of India are met by the natural gas?

(1) About 7%.

(2) About 8%.

(3) About 6%.

(4) About 5%.

Ans: (4) About 5%.

24. Sludge gas largely consists of:

(1) carbon dioxide.

(2) sulphur dioxide.

(3) methane.

(4) hydrogen sulphide.

Ans: (3) methane.

25. Which one of the following is not a non-conventional source of energy?

(1) Fossil fuel.

(2) Solar energy.

(3) Biomass energy.

(4) Wind energy.

Ans: (1) Fossil fuel.

26. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of the construction of major dams in India?

(1) Submergence of forests and agricultural fields.

(2) Destruction of wildlife habitats.

(3) Displacement of people.

(4) Increase in the groundwater level of the surrounding region.

Ans: (4) Increase in the groundwater level of the surrounding region.

27. Fostering is a useful technique for conservation which has been found successful in:

(1) Whooping crane.

(2) Black-footed ferret.

(3) Angus cow.

(4) Seed plants.

Ans: (1) Whooping crane. (2) Black-footed ferret.

28. Mangroves in the coastal areas work against erosion by acting as:

(1) methane filters.

(2) regulation of water regime.

(3) natural bulwark.

(4) natural recharging aquifers.

Ans: (3) natural bulwark.

29. Which of the following is not an invasive species in India?

(1) Water hyacinth.

(2) Congress grass.

(3) Prosopis juliflora.

(4) Neem tree.

Ans: (4) Neem tree.

30. Buffer zone plays a significant role in the preserved areas. Which one of the following is not an important function of the buffer zone?

(1) It provides jobs and income without any ill-effect on species.

(2) It provides transition into the unmodified natural habitat in the core.

(3) It permits for moderate recreational forestry.

(4) Hunting is permitted in this zone.

Ans: (4) Hunting is permitted in this zone.

31. The size of Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) is:

(1) 1 – 10 mm.

(2) 10 – 20 mm.

(3) 1 – 20 μm.

(4) 10 – 20 μm.

Ans: (3) 1 – 20 μm.

32. _______ is the phenomenon of increase in the concentration of pollutants from one link in a food chain to another.

(1) Biological concentration.

(2) Biomagnification.

(3) Bioconcentration.

(4) Biodegradation.

Ans: (2) Biomagnification.

33. Which one the following is a primary pollutant?

(1) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate (PAN).

(2) Nitric acid.

(3) Carbon dioxide.

(4) Sulphuric acid.

Ans: (3) Carbon dioxide.

34. High level of BOD indicates:

(1) decreasing levels of organic waste in water.

(2) decreasing levels of sewage in water.

(3) increasing levels of dissolved oxygen in water.

(4) decreasing levels of dissolved oxygen in water.

Ans: (4) decreasing levels of dissolved oxygen in water.

35. Underground disposal is preferred for the disposal of:

(1) domestic wastes.

(2) radioactive nuclear wastes.

(3) plastic wastes.

(4) building debris.

Ans: (2) radioactive nuclear wastes.

36. Read the below given statements about the single-use plastics and choose the correct options.

(i) They clog drains.

(ii) They harm animals.

(iii) They cause floods in cities.

(iv) They can degrade easily.

(1) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(2) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.

(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(4) All options are correct.

Ans: (1) (i) and (ii) are correct.

37. Eutrophication in water bodies is caused by:

(1) phosphates and nitrates.

(2) sulphate and nitrates.

(3) carbonates and nitrates.

(4) phosphates and oxalates.

Ans: (1) phosphates and nitrates.

38. Which of the following is not true for Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)?

(1) They are responsible for ozone depletion.

(2) They are used in paints and deodorants.

(3) They are stable and remain in lower regions of atmosphere for many years.

(4) They are unaffected by UV radiation in upper atmosphere.

Ans: (2) They are used in paints and deodorants.

39. Which one of the following is used to measure the concentration of ozone?

(1) Parts per kilometer.

(2) Nanometer.

(3) Dobson.

(4) Radium.

Ans: (3) Dobson.

40. What is the approximate percentage of solar radiation which is absorbed by the atmospheric gases?

(1) 10%.

(2) 20%.

(3) 30%.

(4) 40%.

Ans: (3) 30%.

41. The provision for environmental protection in our Constitution was made in the year:

(1) 1976.

(2) 1974.

(3) 1980.

(4) 1952.

Ans: (1) 1976.

42. When was the Wildlife Protection Act enacted?

(1) 1971.

(2) 1978.

(3) 1975.

(4) 1972.

Ans: (4) 1972.

43. Which one of the following is not one of seventeen categories of polluting industries identified by the Central Pollution Control Board?

(1) Pulp and paper.

(2) Oil refineries.

(3) Food processing.

(4) Tanneries.

Ans: (3) Food processing.

44. Projected world population by 2100 would be:

(1) 11.2 billion.

(2) 10.2 billion.

(3) 12.2 billion.

(4) 13.2 billion.

Ans: (2) 10.2 billion.

45. Match the following:

Environmental Influence

Category

(a) Stress.

(b) Toxins.

(c) Noise.

(d) Allergens.

(i) Physical.

(ii) Psychological.

(iii) Biological.

(iv) Chemical.

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).

(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i).

Ans: (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

46. Which one of the following areas in India does not fall under seismic zone?

(1) Kachchh region of Gujarat.

(2) Chamoli and Pithoragarh in Uttarakhand.

(3) Assam.

(4) Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

Ans: (4) Bundelkhand region of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

47. Chandi Prasad Bhatt was associated with:

(1) Silent Valley Movement.

(2) Green Revolution.

(3) Chipko Movement.

(4) Appiko Movement.

Ans: (3) Chipko Movement.

48. The teaching that all living organisms have values and rights regardless of whether they are useful or not refers to:

(1) Biocentrism.

(2) Stewardship.

(3) Anthropocentrism.

(4) The Western viewpoint.

Ans: (1) Biocentrism.

49. Using English only material for communication to non-English speaking communities is an example of:

(1) social inequity.

(2) geographical inequity.

(3) procedural inequity.

(4) economic inequity.

Ans: (1) social inequity.

50. Which one of the following is not an ENVIS Centre?

(1) National Institute of Occupational Health (NIOH), Ahmedabad.

(2) Central Pollution Control Board, New Delhi.

(3) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Mumbai.

(4) Madras Institute of Development Studies (MIDS), Chennai.

Ans: (3) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR), Mumbai.

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