Environmental Studies Solved Paper 2022 [Dibrugarh University BA/BSC/B. Com 2nd Sem]

Environmental Studies Solved Paper 2022 (June/July)

Dibrugarh University BA/BSC/B. Com 2nd Sem

[Ability Enhancement Compulsory Course – AECC]


Full Marks: 100

Pass Marks: 40

Time: 1½ hours

In this Post, You will get Environmental Studies Solved Paper 2022 for Dibrugarh University BA/BSC/B. Com 2nd Sem. Proper explanation is also added with the answers. Visit our website regularly for Environmental Studies (EVS) Solved Paper and Chapterwise Notes.

environmental studies solved paper 2022

1. In an ecosystem, flow of energy usually occurs in the sequence

(a) Solar energy ® Producer ® Decomposer ® Consumer.

(b) Solar energy ® Producer ® Consumer ® Decomposer.

(c) Solar energy ® Decomposer ® Consumer ® Producer.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (b) Solar energy ® Producer ® Consumer ® Decomposer.

[Hint: In an ecosystem, flow of energy usually occurs in the sequence of: Sun ® Producer ® Herbivore ® Carnivore ® Decomposer.

Herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores are consumers. Herbivores are primary consumers. Carnivores and omnivores are secondary consumers.]

2. Which one of the following species of Assam is endangered?

(a) Golden langur.

(b) Tiger.

(c) Leopard.

(d) Vulture.

Ans: (a) Golden langur.

[Hint: Endangered Species in India: Golden Langur, Hoolock Gibbon, spotted linsang, Three-keeled Asian turtle.]

3. Excess use of synthetic chemical fertilizers causes

(a) soil salinity.

(b) air pollution.

(c) crop diseases.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (b) air pollution.

4. Which one of the following energy sources is not eco-friendly?

(a) Wind energy.

(b) Solar energy.

(c) Tidal energy.

(d) Nuclear energy.

Ans: (d) Nuclear energy.

[Hint: Nuclear energy is obtained mainly from uranium and thorium by using the heat generated by a controlled fission reaction. Dumping of radioactive wastes generated during energy production using nuclear reaction causes serious environmental hazards making it non-ecofriendly.]

5. An ecosystem must have

(a) biotic and abiotic components.

(b) biotic components.

(c) abiotic components.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (a) biotic and abiotic components.

[Hints: Components of Eco-system

1. Producers: Producers are organisms that produce their own food using energy from the sun through a process called photosynthesis. The most common producers in terrestrial ecosystems are plants, while in aquatic ecosystems, they can include algae and phytoplankton. They are also called autotrophs.

2. Consumers: Consumers are organisms that obtain energy and nutrients by feeding on other organisms. There are three main types of consumers: herbivores, carnivores, and omnivores. Herbivores eat only plants, carnivores eat only other animals, and omnivores eat both plants and animals. Consumers are also called heterotrophs.

3. Decomposers: Decomposers are organisms that break down dead organic matter and recycle the nutrients back into the ecosystem. Decomposers include bacteria, fungi, and worms. They are important for maintaining the balance of nutrients in the ecosystem.

4. Abiotic factors: Abiotic factors are the non-living components of an ecosystem, including temperature, water, air, soil, and sunlight. These factors influence the distribution and abundance of organisms in an ecosystem.

5. Biotic factors: Biotic factors are the living components of an ecosystem, including plants, animals, and microorganisms. These factors interact with each other and with abiotic factors to shape the structure and function of the ecosystem.]

6. Which one of the following is an example of a food chain?

(a) Grass ¬ Deer ¬ Tiger.

(b) Grass ® Deer ® Tiger.

(c) Grass ® Rat ® Eagle.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (b) Grass ® Deer ® Tiger.

[Hint: In a grassland ecosystem, a grasshopper might eat grass which might get eaten by a frog, which in turn is consumed by a snake. Finally, an eagle snatches up
the snake.]

7. The ‘Red Data Book’ is prepared by

(a) IUCN.

(b) CITES.

(c) WWF.

(d) UNCBD.

Ans: (a) IUCN.

[Hint: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) prepares the Red Data Book. Red Data book keeps a record of endangered animal and endangered plants. Red Data Book is different for plants, animals, and other species.]

8. ‘Project Tiger’ was started in the year

(a) 1971.

(b) 2001.

(c) 1973.

(d) 2005.

Ans: (c) 1973.

[Hint: Project Tiger is a tiger conservation programme launched in November 1973 by the Government of India during Prime Minister Indira Gandhi’s tenure.]

9. Which one of the following is in situ conservation?

(a) Wildlife sanctuary.

(b) Tissue culture.

(c) Botanical garden.

(d) Gamete.

Ans: (a) Wildlife sanctuary.

[Hint: In-situ conservation means the conservation of a species in its natural habitat and the maintenance and recovery of viable population of species in their original place.]

10. DDT is a

(a) non-pollutant.

(b) non-biodegradable pollutant.

(c) biodegradable pollutant.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (b) non-biodegradable pollutant.

[Hint: Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane is a non-biodegradable pesticide i.e. it cannot be degraded by the action of microbes and acts as a pollutant causing serious harm to organisms.

DDT was used as an insecticide to prevent the spread of disease and to protect crops.

DDT that is sprayed in the fields is absorbed by the crop plants and passes on to the humans when they consume it.]

11. Eutrophication is a consequence of which type of pollution?

(a) Water.

(b) Soil.

(c) Air.

(d) Sound.

Ans: (a) Water.

[Hint: Harmful algal blooms, dead zones, and fish kills are the results of a process called eutrophication — which occurs when the environment becomes enriched with nutrients, increasing the amount of plant and algae growth to estuaries and coastal waters.]

12. The intensity of sound is measured in the unit of

(a) centimeter.

(b) decibel.

(c) metre / second.

(d) second.

Ans: (b) decibel.

[Hint: Sound intensity measured in units is called decibels. Decibels (dB) are named in honor of Alexander Graham Bell, the inventor of both the telephone and the audiometer.]

13. Which one of the following is the gas of ‘Bhopal Gas Tragedy’?

(a) Methane.

(b) Methyl Isocyanate.

(c) CFC.

(d) Carbon monoxide.

Ans: (b) Methyl Isocyanate.

[Hint: On December 3 1984, more than 40 tons of methyl isocyanate gas leaked from a pesticide plant in Bhopal, India, immediately killing at least 3,800 people and causing significant morbidity and premature death for many thousands more.]

14. Under which Act, the use of CFC is banned in India?

(a) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

(b) The National Environment Tribunal Act, 1995.

(c) The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

(d) The Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules, 2000.

Ans: (a) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

15. Which day is observed on 11th July?

(a) The World Population Day.

(b) The World Environment Day.

(c) The World Health Day.

(d) The Earth Day.

Ans: (a) The World Population Day.


(b) The World Environment Day. – 5th June

(c) The World Health Day.  – 7th April

(d) The Earth Day. – 22nd April.]

16. Which one of the following is the communicable disease?

(a) Corona.

(b) Cancer.

(c) Hemophilia.

(d) Diabetes.

Ans: (a) Corona.

17. India has approximately percentage of the world’s population.

(a) 20.

(b) 17.5

(c) 10.

(d) 12.5

Ans: (b) 17.5

18. The first State in India to enact Specific Law on Public Health is

(a) Tamil Nadu.

(b) Assam.

(c) Uttar Pradesh.

(d) Kerala.

Ans: (a) Tamil Nadu.

[Hint: Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh enforced the law in 1939 and have amended it from time to time. Madhya Pradesh’s law was put in place in 1949 whereas Goa
formulated a public health act in 1985. In Uttar Pradesh, the law was framed in 2020, after the Covid breakout.]

19. GIS is an effective IT tool for which of the following?

(a) Navigation.

(b) Internet browsing.

(c) Environment management.

(d) All of the above.

Ans: (d) All of the above.

[Hint: GIS (geographic information system) technology is used to find relationships and trends in data. GIS allows data to be presented visually as maps, reports and charts. The technology can be applied to virtually anything that has a location, whether a person, object or event.]

20. The ozone layer protects the life on the earth from which of the following?

(a) Ultraviolet radiation.

(b) Infrared radiation.

(c) Cosmic radiation.

(d) All of the above.

Ans: (a) Ultraviolet radiation.

21. The “World Environment Day” is held annually on

(a) 5th June.

(b) 1st January.

(c) 12th June.

(d) 15th May.

Ans: (a) 5th June.

22. The main cause of recent global warming is

(a) water pollution.

(b) increase of greenhouses gases.

(c) ozone hole.

(d) increase of forest fire.

Ans: (b) increase of greenhouses gases.

[Hint: Modern global warming is the result of an increase in magnitude of the so-called greenhouse effect. Gases that trap heat in the atmosphere are called greenhouse gases. The main gases responsible for the greenhouse effect include carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and water vapour.]

23. The concept of ‘sustainable development’ was conceived in the

(a) Rio Declaration.

(b) Earth Summit.

(c) Brundtland Report.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (a) Rio Declaration.

[Hint: The concept of sustainable development formed the basis of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.]

24. The most frequent and major natural disaster faced by our country is

(a) soil erosion.

(b) flood.

(c) earthquake.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (b) flood.

25. Ozone layer depletion increases

(a) greenhouse effect.

(b) oxygen concentration in air.

(c) skin cancer cases.

(d) crop productivity.

Ans: (a) greenhouse effect.


Environmental Studies  MCQs  Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

Top 100 Environmental Studies MCQs

Environmental Studies  Chapterwise  Notes

Unit 1: Introduction to Environmental Studies

Unit 2: Ecosystems

Unit 3: Natural Resources: Types, Renewable and Non-renewable Resources

Unit 4: Biodiversity and Conservation (Available in DTS App – Only for Members)

Unit 5: Environmental Pollution

Unit 6: Social Issues and the Environment

Unit 7: Environmental Policies & Practices

Unit 8: Human Communities and the Environment

Unit 9: Field work

Environmental Studies  Question Papers 

➡ Dibrugarh University 2022

➡ Gauhati University 2022

➡ Assam University 2019  2021

➡ Kolkata University (Coming Soon)

Environmental Studies  Solved Question Papers  

➡ Dibrugarh University 2022

26. ‘Recycle, reduce and reuse’ are involved with which of the following?

(a) Solid waste management.

(b) Sewage management.

(c) Water management.

(d) Fossil fuel management.

Ans: (a) Solid waste management.

27. Refrigerator and air conditioners cause

(a) thermal pollution.

(b) sound pollution.

(c) air pollution.

(d) soil pollution.

Ans: (c) air pollution.

28. On 16th September, 1987, the _______ was agreed to control the emission of ozone depleting substances.

(a) Montreal Protocol.

(b) Brundtland Report.

(c) Rio Declaration.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (a) Montreal Protocol.

29. In India, the force deployed for tackling threatening disaster situation is

(a) NDRF.

(b) CRPF.

(c) NDMA.

(d) RAF.

Ans: (a) NDRF.

30. CITES basically deals with

(a) protection of wild plants and animals from illegal international trades.

(b) conservation of wildlife.

(c) in situ and ex situ conservation.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (a) protection of wild plants and animals from illegal international trades.

31. The ‘Red Data Book’ keeps the records of

(a) near-threatened species.

(b) endangered species.

(c) endemic species.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (b) endangered species.

32. The number of bio geographical zones of India is

(a) 8.

(b) 5.

(c) 12.

(d) 10.

Ans: (d) 10.

[Hint: Biogeographic classification of India is the division of India according to biogeographic characteristics. Biogeography is the study of the distribution of species, organisms, and ecosystems in geographic space and through geological time. India has a rich heritage of natural diversity.

10 bio geographical zones in India: Gangetic Plain, North East Region, Coastal Region and Islands, Trans-Himalayan Region, Himalayan Zone, Indian Desert Zone, Semi-Arid Region, Western Ghats, Deccan Plateau.]

33. The components of biodiversity are

(a) genetic and species diversity.

(b) genetic, species, ecosystem and molecular diversity.

(c) genetic, species and ecosystem diversity.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (c) genetic, species and ecosystem diversity.

34. Which one of the following is a secondary pollutant of air?

(a) Carbon monoxide.

(b) Methane.

(c) Smog.

(d) Smoke.

Ans: (c) Smog.

[Hint: Primary air pollutants are formed and emitted directly from particular sources such as carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxide, sulfur oxide etc.

Secondary air pollutants are not emitted rather; they are formed in the air when the primary pollutants react or interact. The two examples are ozone and smog.]

35. Ecological succession, which starts in a dry area, is known as

(a) Hydrarch.

(b) Mesarch.

(c) Xerarch.

(d) Desert.

Ans: (c) Xerarch.

36. Lung disease of miners is caused by

(a) uranium mining.

(b) gold mining.

(c) coal mining.

(d) None of the above.

Ans: (c) coal mining.

37. Three hot spots of our country are

(a) Western Ghats, Himalayas and Indo-Myanmar Region.

(b) Eastern Ghats, Himalayas and Indo-Myanmar Region.

(c) Eastern Ghats, Bihar and Assam.

(d) Kerala, Bihar and Gujarat.

Ans: (a) Western Ghats, Himalayas and Indo-Myanmar Region.

38. The greenhouses gases are

(a) CH4, N2, CO2, NH3.

(b) O2, CO2, NH3, NO2.

(c) CFC, CO2, NH3, N2.

(d) CFC, CO2, CH4, N2O.

Ans: (d) CFC, CO2, CH4, N2O.

39. Which one of the following organisms is a herbivore?

(a) Snake.

(b) Deer.

(c) Fox.

(d) Tiger.

Ans: (b) Deer.

40. A pond is

(a) an ecosystem.

(b) not an ecosystem.

(c) a vast barren landmass.

(d) devoid of biotic components.

Ans: (a) an ecosystem.

41. To increase consumer awareness towards reducing environmental impact, the Government of India started a certification mark in 1991 known as

(a) Green Label.

(b) EKO Label.

(c) Eco Mark.

(d) Green Seal.

Ans: (c) Eco Mark.

42. The name of the scientist who first introduced the term ‘environment’ is

(a) E.J. Ross.

(b) Lady Bird Johnson.

(c) P. Gisbert.

(d) Jacob van Uerkal.

Ans: (d) Jacob van Uerkal.

[Hint: The word ‘Environment’ is derived from the French word ‘Environner’ which means to encircle, around or surround. The biologist Jacob Van Uerkal (1864-1944)
introduced the term ‘environment’ in Ecology.]

43. Which one of the following is not a renewable natural resources?

(a) Forest.

(b) Mineral.

(c) Water.

(d) Wind.

Ans: (b) Mineral.

[Hint: a) Renewable resources: Renewable resources are resources that are in-exhaustive and can be regenerated within a given span of time e.g. Crops, solar energy, forest, wildlife etc. Such resources are being continuously consumed by living beings but renewed by nature.

Examples of renewable resources:

– Crops

– Solar Energy

– Forest

– Wildlife

– Wind Energy

– Ground Water

– Products of lakes such as fresh water, fish, black bass, catfish.

– Products of Oceans such as marine fish, marine mammals

– Human Resources

– Soil

b) Non-renewable resources: Non-renewable resources are resources that which cannot be regenerated by nature after being consumed. Such resources are available only in finite quantities e.g. fossil fuel like coal, petroleum, minerals like iron, copper etc.

Examples of non-renewable resources:

– Fossils fuel like Natural gas, coal, petroleum etc.

– Minerals like Copper, iron, zinc etc.

– Nuclear energy etc.]

44. The problem created by hydro-electric mega dams is

(a) loss of biodiversity.

(b) deforestation.

(c) soil erosion.

(d) Both (a) and (b).

Ans: (d) Both (a) and (b).

45. The percentage of freshwater out of the whole water content available on the earth is approximately

(a) 3.

(b) 20.

(c) 1.

(d) 97.

Ans: (a) 3.

[Hint: The total volume of water on Earth is estimated at 1.386 billion km³ (333 million cubic miles), with 97% being salt water and 3% being fresh water.]

46. The theme of the ‘World Environment Day’ for the year 2022 is

(a) Only One Earth.

(b) A Tree for Peace.

(c) Give Earth a Chance.

(d) Desertification.

Ans: (a) Only One Earth.

[Hint: The theme of World Environment Day 2022 is “Only One Earth” which is hosted by Sweden. It’s main focus is on “Living Sustainably in Harmony with Nature”.

The theme for Earth Day 2022 is “Invest in Our Planet.” Earth Day 2022 is focused on accelerating solutions to combat our greatest threat, climate change, and to activate everyone – governments, citizens, and businesses – to do their part. Everyone accounted for, and everyone accountable.]

47. The number of National Parks in Assam is

(a) 7.

(b) 5.

(c) 6.

(d) 8.

Ans: (a)

[Hint: 7 National Parks of Assam: Dihing Patkai, Raimona, Kaziranga, Manas, Dibru-Saikhowa, Nameri and Rajiv Gandhi Orang National Park.]

48. In India, when was the Wildlife Protection Act established?

(a) 1972.

(b) 1973.

(c) 1983.

(d) 1994.

Ans: (a) 1972.

49. Which one of the following is called the ‘earth’s lung’?

(a) Ocean.

(b) Atmosphere.

(c) Forest.

(d) Wildlife.

Ans: (c) Forest.

[Hint: Forests in general are known as ‘lungs of Earth’ because they absorb large amounts of carbon dioxide and release large amounts of oxygen due to photosynthesis.

The Amazon Rainforest in particular is known as ‘the Lungs of the World’ because it sucks up global emissions of carbon dioxide, and about 20% of earth’s oxygen is produced by the Amazonia.]

50. Which one of the following is an example of decomposer?

(a) Grass.

(b) Snake.

(c) Fungus.

(d) Toad.

Ans: (c) Fungus.

[Hint: Decomposers: Decomposers are organisms that break down dead organic matter and recycle the nutrients back into the ecosystem. Decomposers include bacteria, fungi, and worms. They are important for maintaining the balance of nutrients in the ecosystem.]

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