June 2022 BEVAE 181 Environmental Studies Solved Paper [IGNOU BCOMG]
IGNOU BCOMG Solved Question Papers
Term-End Examination, June, 2022
Maximum Marks: 50
Time: 2 hours
In this post you will get June 2022 BEVAE 181 Environmental Studies Solved Paper. This is a Common paper for the Students of IGNOU BCOMG Pursuing Graduation.
1. World Commission on Environment and Development was chaired by:
(1) Herman Daly.
(2) Gro Harlem Brundtland.
(3) Maurice Strong.
(4) Pierre Trudeau.
Ans: (2) Gro Harlem Brundtland.
2. Which one of the following is a decomposer?
(1) Hawk.
(2) Tadpole.
(3) Earthworm.
(4) Fungi.
Ans: (4) Fungi.
3. Which one of the following is not one of the priority areas for achieving sustainable development goals?
(1) Protection of forests and other habitats.
(2) Reduce poverty, inequality and third world debt.
(3) Zero pollution.
(4) Reduced waste generation.
Ans: (3) Zero pollution.
4. The main sulphur reservoir in the sulphur cycle is present in the:
(1) soil.
(2) volcanic eruption.
(3) hydrogen sulphide.
(4) water.
Ans: (1) soil.
5. Level IV of the trophic level could be occupied by:
(1) rabbit.
(2) grass.
(3) grasshopper.
(4) tiger.
Ans: (4) tiger.
6. In the biosphere, the main land component is known as:
(1) lithosphere.
(2) hydrosphere.
(3) ecosphere.
(4) stratosphere.
Ans: (1) lithosphere.
7. Identify the following types of food chain:
Goat ® Nematodes ® Saprotrophic bacteria
(1) detritus food chain.
(2) grazing food chain.
(3) parasitic food chain.
(4) aquatic food chain.
Ans: (1) detritus food chain.
8. The discipline of public health was established in Europe after:
(1) 1642.
(2) 1812.
(3) 1742.
(4) 1842.
Ans: (4) 1842.
9. The occurrence of _______ may take place when sea water in the tropical belt gets heated above 27°C and low pressure areas developed above the water levels.
(1) rains.
(2) cyclones.
(3) anti-cyclones.
(4) tsunamis.
Ans: (2) cyclones.
10. Floods in which two countries results in two-third of total deaths caused by floods:
(1) India and Bangladesh.
(2) China and Bangladesh.
(3) Pakistan and Bangladesh.
(4) India and Nepal.
Ans: (1) India and Bangladesh.
IGNOU BCOMG Solved Question Papers – BEVAE 181 Environmental Studies
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11. The natural defence against tsunamis is:
(1) mangrove forest.
(2) coral.
(3) stony beaches.
(4) gritty sand on the beach.
Ans: (1) mangrove forest.
12. In MAB programme run by UNESCO, MAB stands for:
(1) Man and the Biodiversity.
(2) Mankind and the Biosphere.
(3) Man and the Biosphere.
(4) Mankind and the Biodiversity.
Ans: (3) Man and the Biosphere.
13. Seed bank is the example of:
(1) ex-situ conservation.
(2) in-situ conservation.
(3) captive breeding.
(4) in-vitro technique.
Ans: (1) ex-situ conservation.
14. A wide diversity in species composition indicates that ecosystem is:
(1) likely to be more stable in the long-term.
(2) very new in existence.
(3) very unstable and species may collapse soon.
(4) unstable but has large number of species.
Ans: (1) likely to be more stable in the long-term.
15. The fostering technique has been used to conserve:
(1) Elephant.
(2) Cheetah.
(3) Whooping crane.
(4) Angus cow.
Ans: (3) Whooping crane.
16. The unattached organisms in an aquatic ecosystem which live at the interface of air-water are known as:
(1) neuston.
(2) nekton.
(3) plankton.
(4) benthos.
Ans: (1) neuston.
17. Brackish water ecosystems include:
(1) stagnant inland lakes.
(2) impoundments.
(3) lotic habitat.
(4) estuaries and mangroves.
Ans: (4) estuaries and mangroves.
18. The average salinity in sea water is about:
(1) 2.5%.
(2) 3.5%.
(3) 4.5%.
(4) 5.8%.
Ans: (2) 3.5%.
19. Which of the following is open or heterotrophic system?
(1) Pond.
(2) Bog.
(3) River.
(4) Swamp.
Ans: (1) Pond.
20. Approximately 50% of the total world species are present in:
(1) tropical rain forests.
(2) temperate rain forests.
(3) temperate deciduous forests.
(4) coral reefs.
Ans: (1) tropical rain forests.
21. Genetic diversity is related to:
(1) types of species.
(2) types of community.
(3) diversity in number and type of genes.
(4) distribution and evolution of species.
Ans: (3) diversity in number and type of genes.
22. Biodiversity hotspots are regions of high:
(1) productivity.
(2) endemism.
(3) density of flora and fauna.
(4) concentration of alien species.
Ans: (2) endemism.
23. Which one of the following statements about biodiversity is not true?
(1) The most visible component of biodiversity is species diversity.
(2) Islands and coastal stretches of India show high number of endemic species.
(3) Vertebrates are the most abundant life forms on earth.
(4) Biodiversity hotspots are under constant threat.
Ans: (3) Vertebrates are the most abundant life forms on earth.
24. Ravine is formed due to:
(1) acidic soil.
(2) basic soil.
(3) soil erosion.
(4) soil salinity.
Ans: (3) soil erosion.
25. Finer particles in waste water can be made to settle by using:
(1) Chlorination.
(2) Carbon dioxide.
(3) Caustic soda.
(4) Hydrogen sulphide.
Ans: (4) Hydrogen sulphide.
26. What percentage of global freshwater is available in the liquid form?
(1) 5.
(2) 10.
(3) 15.
(4) 20.
Ans: (1) 5.
27. Which of the following is not achieved by addition of manure?
(1) Improved cohesiveness of soil.
(2) Increase in water retention capacity.
(3) Decrease in soil salinity.
(4) A more stable aggregate structure.
Ans: (3) Decrease in soil salinity.
28. Which of the following sources of energy is non-conventional?
(1) Hydropower.
(2) Biomass.
(3) Natural gas.
(4) Atomic energy.
Ans: (2) Biomass.
29. Which of the following regions in India is the highest producer of mineral oil?
(1) Upper Assam.
(2) Cambay.
(3) Krishna-Godavari basin.
(4) Bombay High.
Ans: (1) Upper Assam.
30. Economic development leads to declining growth rates of per capita energy demand in which of the following?
(1) Industrial sector.
(2) Residential sector.
(3) Transport sector.
(4) Commercial sector.
Ans: (2) Residential sector.
31. ‘Sludge gas’ largely consists of:
(1) sulphur dioxide.
(2) hydrogen sulphide.
(3) carbon dioxide.
(4) methane.
Ans: (4) methane.
32. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was established in:
(1) 1982.
(2) 1985.
(3) 1988.
(4) 1990.
Ans: (3) 1988.
33. Which one of the following is not responsible for acid rain?
(1) Sulphur dioxide.
(2) Sulphur trioxide.
(3) Nitrogen dioxide.
(4) CFCs.
Ans: (4) CFCs.
34. Which one of the following is not a part of Eight National Missions for climate change?
(1) National Water Mission.
(2) National Mission for a Green India.
(3) National Mission for Hunger and Poverty Eradication.
(4) National Mission for Sustainable Habitat.
Ans: (3) National Mission for Hunger and Poverty Eradication.
35. Basel convention is largely related to:
(1) biological diversity.
(2) hazardous waste management.
(3) ozone depletion.
(4) greenhouse gases.
Ans: (2) hazardous waste management.
36. The main function of National Green Tribunal is:
(1) effective and expeditious disposal of cases on environmental issues.
(2) effective and expeditious disposal of causes related to civil issues.
(3) frame regulations to control air pollution.
(4) frame environmental laws.
Ans: (1) effective and expeditious disposal of cases on environmental issues.
37. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was amended in:
(1) 1981.
(2) 1987.
(3) 2000.
(4) 1974.
Ans: (3) 2000.
38. Which toxic gas was released from chemical plant during Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
(1) Methane.
(2) Sulphur dioxide.
(3) Methyl Isocyanate.
(4) Ethyl Isocyanate.
Ans: (3) Methyl Isocyanate.
39. Which one of the following is a primary pollutant?
(1) Sulphur trioxide.
(2) Sulphur dioxide.
(3) Sulphuric acid.
(4) Sulphurous acid.
Ans: (2) Sulphur dioxide.
40. Which one of the following is responsible for depletion of oxygen in water causing harm to aquatic life?
(1) Detergents.
(2) Human sewage.
(3) Pesticides.
(4) Industrial waste.
Ans: (2) Human sewage.
41. What would be the best method for disposal of radioactive nuclear waste?
(1) Dumping at sea.
(2) Underground disposal.
(3) Landfill disposal.
(4) Incineration.
Ans: (2) Underground disposal.
42. Which one of the following is not a biological method of waste treatment?
(1) Conditioning.
(2) Digestion.
(3) Composting.
(4) Lagooning and tank storage.
Ans: (1) Conditioning.
43. Which of the following is not a factor requiring new set of ethics for the environment?
(1) Changing food habits.
(2) New effect on nature.
(3) New knowledge about nature.
(4) Expanding moral concerns.
Ans: (1) Changing food habits.
44. Which one of the following statements related to economic significance of forest is not correct?
(1) It provides a wide variety of goods and services which include food, fodder and fuel.
(2) It holds the key to numerous life sustaining products such as pharmaceuticals, insecticides and pesticides.
(3) It protects watersheds and ensure perennial supplies of fresh water.
(4) Fruits, leaves, roots and tubers of the plants form the food of forest tribes.
Ans: (4) Fruits, leaves, roots and tubers of the plants form the food of forest tribes.
45. Which one of the following is not one of the causes of deforestation?
(1) Population explosion.
(2) Forest fires.
(3) Pest attacks.
(4) Rise in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Ans: (4) Rise in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
46. India needs about _______ percentage of its total area under forest to meet the ecological and economic needs.
(1) 50.
(2) 25.
(3) 40.
(4) 33.
Ans: (4) 33.
47. Which of the following animals excretes very concentrated urine?
(1) Camel.
(2) Garden lizard.
(3) Nocturnal rodents.
(4) Snakes.
Ans: (1) Camel.
48. The attitude which assigns significantly greater value to human being than any other non-human organisms is known as:
(1) Stewardship.
(2) Anthropocentrism.
(3) Biocentrism.
(4) Eco-feminism.
Ans: (2) Anthropocentrism.
49. Which one of the following is not an ENVIS Centre?
(1) National Institute of Occupational Health, Ahmedabad.
(2) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, Mumbai.
(3) Society for Development Alternatives, New Delhi.
(4) Industrial Toxicology Research Centre, Lucknow.
Ans: (3) Society for Development Alternatives, New Delhi.
50. MPN test is used to detect:
(1) E. coli.
(2) Schigella boyadis.
(3) S. sonmei.
(4) Vibrio cholera.
Ans: (1) E. coli.
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